In this thread you can debate all aspects of prostitution, whether it's right or not and etc.
But what I'm really wondering about is this:
If a prostitute has sex with a man, and the man doesn't pay up, should it be considered rape?
I really don't know what to think of this. On one hand, the prostitute agreed to have sex with the man on the condition that he'd pay, which he didn't, so the woman didn't really consent to it.
On the other hand, we can't assume that the man did anything violent, they did just have regular sex, not unlike any other sold sex.
What do you think?