If you were to take something from someone which they themselves had already stolen, would that still be considered stealing?
My basic premise is:
*Stealing is taking something, from someone, without their consent.
*Something stolen is not someone's property in the first place.
In case your wondering, its not that I am considering to conduct a massive thieving operation of an unsuspecting gypsy settlement. With the only thing that will potentially deter me-being this profound moral crossroad I have arrived at, no. Rather this post is the yield of a long and dull journey home as the result of taking the wrong turning at a T-junction.